Saturday, November 22, 2008
Guilt in Macbeth
Tuesday, November 18, 2008
female names in macbeth
Ok, so I was interested in what others might think of this little detail from Macbeth. Why is it that this is a play where females play a large role, but Shakespeare refuses to give them any names? Lady Macbeth and the Witches have a huge role in actions taken by all characters in this play. For a play that emphasizes the importance of woman characters I am confused why they are not given any actual names. A few of ideas that I had: 1) Lady Macbeth controls Macbeth or at least has strong influence on his actions. So Shakespeare might possibly be connecting her identity to Macbeths, therefore sharing the blame between the two of them. 2) Because females have such a prominent role in this play, which might offend some males at the time, this was Shakespeare’s way of removing their identities. This could help satisfy the male egos that would be offended by such strong female presences within the play. 3) Lady Macbeth is a common way to refer to a woman of stature during the time this play was written or for when it what set. If that’s the case then I have obviously over thought this whole name thing. Let me know what you think.
Monday, November 17, 2008
Masculinity in Macbeth
Thursday, November 13, 2008
the three witches: about as clear as case law
Why did they go into so much detail about Macbeth’s death and not his rise to power? They gave many clues as to what and how things would take place to precede his death but when they first meet Macbeth to tell him of his advancement of titles and power, they say so little. They could have easily said “Hey you’re going to become king by killing the king…here’s how you do it” or “hey you’re going to become king…but don’t kill him because otherwise you’re going to become one of the greatest literary villains of time. And he’ll die of a tragic accident in like a week anyway”. But seriously why? I can’t really think of anything quite yet; I’ll probably have to reread those sections. Thoughts guys? I mean granted Macbeth did ask specific-ish questions about his impending downfall but he also tried to ask them in the beginning.
My other question concerns Hecate. Was she like pissed off or was it kind of like one of those…”Really guys? Really? Did you have to go and paint on the walls? I gave you crayons and finger paints and lots of paper and you had to go and draw on the walls. Well fine, let’s clean it up and then we can bake cookies.” I know, I know, she wasn’t exactly all June Cleaver, and this isn’t Leave it to Beaver but I don't get a sense of like true anger besides what the witches alude to. I didn’t really get the sense that she was all that upset with them and beyond the fact that she came into scold them what’s her purpose? She comes into tell them to clean up their act and right their wrongs (again an –ish) and nothing else. I really don’t see a role for her. Which makes me wonder if she’s actually a terrifically important character and I’m missing something huge. Help!
Richard: Love him or hate him?
Monday, November 10, 2008
Witches In Macbeth
In the beginning when they are meeting they ask when they should meet again, “When shall we three meet again? In thunder, lightning, or in the rain?” All three of these environments are dark, cruel atmospheres. This gives the audience the idea of what these witches are here for. They say they want to meet Macbeth, but they don’t explain why they will meet with Macbeth. This confuses me, are they just randomly picking Macbeth for no good reason, is it just random? When they meet with Macbeth they seduce him into this greedy, lustful character. His greed is for power and for this power he needs to become violent and kill. These witches cause all the violence because they are greedy, lustful, and full of dark
Sunday, November 9, 2008
macbeth's self fufilling prophecy
I am a psychology major so naturally I am biased to this point of view… but I think that Macbeth’s fate was mainly a product of a self-fulfilling prophecy. Although some of the witches apparitions that come true are purely supernatural such as their warnings that Macbeth would be safe until Birnam Wood moved to Dunsane Hill and that he would not be harmed by none of woman born( and all the other prophecies in that scene.) I believe that Macbeths killing of Duncan Banquoe and Macduff’s wife and children are the result of Macbeths allowance of the witches prophecies (that he would become king and that Banquo’s children would eventually gain the throne) to completely manifest themselves as absolute reality in his mind and his inability to realize that he still had the power to choose his actions. Macbeth’s actions can be paralleled with the ideas in the Thomas Theorem the root principal in self fulfilling prophecy explains that: “people do not react only to the situations they are in, but also, and often primarily, to the way they perceive the situations and to the meaning they assign to these situations. Therefore, their behavior is determined in part by their perception and the meaning they ascribe to the situations they are in, rather than by the situations themselves. Once people convince themselves that a situation really has a certain meaning, regardless of whether it actually does, they will take very real actions in consequence.” (Wikipedia) Similarly, it doesn’t matter whether or not the witches prophecies in the beginning of the play were true or if the witches had just turned out to be three crazy homeless ladies speaking in tongues that were only in the play for that one scene…Macbeth would have fundamentally carried out the same actions.